From the discussion over at Green Baggins has bubbled up a very cogent article by Joel Garver concerning the possible meanings of "baptismal regeneration."
The upshot is that Joel defends the concept (while carefully avoiding the issue of the wording) of "baptismal regeneration" in this sense: baptism can grant regenerating grace in "seed form" to children, and this grace comes to fruition within the elect. (This is a vast oversimplification; read his article).
The problem becomes obvious: when, in time, are such children actually cleansed of sin? If we ask this question and insist on a direct answer, we will be forced to acknowledge that cleansing actually happens at the moment of faith (Calvin tends to emphasize this aspect in his discussions of sacraments and baptism, Inst. 4.14-15). It is clear that the Puritan angst over "conversion" represents a logical outcome of pursuing this question to the bitter end.
On the other hand, if we leave the question unresolved, or affirm that faith justifies *and* baptism cleanses, then we run the risk of contradicting Romans 4.10, which clearly indicates that Abraham was justified, "once-for-all", prior to his circumcision.
Here, I would like to suggest a third way of looking at this: from the lens of the perfective nature of God's promises.
It has long been recognized that the OT frequently uses the "prophetic perfect": that God's promises in the prophecies are often spoken of in the past tense, as if they had already happened[1]. Genesis 15.18 is a stellar example of such a promise: "to your descendants, I have given this land." In this passage, the giving of the land is so certain that it is a "done deal." The perfect aspect is used here as a device to communicate certainty.
There are instances in the New Testament that suggest such a perfective way of thinking. In James 2, the faith that justified Abraham is said to "work together" with his action of offering up Isaac -- an event that occurred about 30 years later! In a similar way, Paul attributes Abraham's faith in the conception of Isaac as the reason that his "faith was reckoned to him as righteousness" (Rom. 4.22).
Attributing Abraham's later faith or works to his earlier justifying faith is a nonsensical move if we are thinking chronologically. Hence, some have posited "subsequent justifications" or else "proofs of justification" as a way of understanding James 2.
But if we step out of time for a moment and see Abraham's faith, perseverance, and works as a perfective unity -- a "done deal", accomplished by the Holy Spirit subsequent to and because of his justifying faith -- then the problem vanishes. Abraham was justified entirely by faith, prior to circumcision (Rom 4.10). And yet, that faith was never alone. It was guaranteed, by the promises of God, to be accompanied by perseverance and good works, which promise was fulfilled by the work of the Spirit. And we can, using perfective aspect language, say that Abraham was "justified by works", knowing that works cannot themselves justify and also that Abraham was in no need of further justification in Genesis 21.
We see a similar way of thinking in Romans 8: "For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the likeness of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. And those he predestined, he also called; those he called, he also justified; those he justified, he also glorified." (8.29-30). Notice that Paul is speaking here both of the Roman church and also of people not yet born! Yet he speaks of their callings, justifications, and even glorifications in the past, as if the entire package is a "done deal."
Baptism
And this brings us back to the subject of baptism. In Romans 4, Paul is clear that Abraham is justified before he is circumcised. But then, says Paul, Abraham receives circumcision as a "sign and seal" of the faith that he had prior to the circumcision. God grants the sign of the cutting away of the sin nature 24 years after Abraham is justified. So when was Abraham cleansed? Clearly, when he believed. And yet, God seals that at a much later date; the "cleansing power" of circumcision occurs out of time with respect to the faith that cleanses.
The same issue arises now in Romans 6: Or do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus have been baptized into His death? Therefore we have been buried with Him through baptism into death, so that as Christ was raised from the dead through the glory of the Father, so we too might walk in newness of life. -- Rom 6.3-4.
Paul's plain language attributes the power of salvation -- uniting with Christ -- to baptism. But Paul's other plain language in Romans 4 makes it clear that faith, and not circumcision (|| baptism!), is what justified Abraham. So which is it?
Like the puzzle of works in James, this puzzle can be solved by appealing to the idea of a perfective aspect to our baptism. If we *must* watch the film and locate a moment of cleansing, that moment is certainly our moment of faith (assuming one can pin a definite moment of faith down!). But the sacrament of baptism, which "preaches Christ's cleansing" to us, is attributed the power of cleansing to us perfectively. Baptism is a part of the package.
I used to read WCoF 27 and 28 in a certain way:
27.2 There is, in every sacrament, a spiritual relation, or sacramental union, between the sign and the thing signified: whence it comes to pass, that the names and effects of the one are attributed to the other.
28.6 The efficacy of Baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, notwithstanding, by the right use of this ordinance, the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited, and conferred, by the Holy Ghost, to such (whether of age or infants) as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God's own will, in His appointed time.
I thought of it like this: "When infants are baptized, we know that they don't really believe yet, except in rare cases like John the Baptist, but when they grow up and come to faith, then we retroactively assign the effect to the baptism."
This isn't a terrible way to think about it, but it does create a couple of problems. One obvious one is that baptism signifies cleansing (Acts 22 uses strong language: "be baptized and wash away your sins."), and yet for adults being baptized upon profession of faith, we all admit that the cleansing happens upon faith, not upon baptism. So the "union" mentioned in 27.2 is quite nominal, on this account.
Another obvious problem is that the account above seems like linguistic sleight of hand. We *say* that a child's baptism was efficacious, but what we *mean* is that faith cleansed him.
Let's try to refine the account a bit, using the notion of "perfective aspect."
"God saves us by faith. But in His grace, he gives us signs to preach the gospel to us: the Word, Communion, and Baptism. These signs are used by the Holy Spirit to cause real changes in us; specifically, to increase and engender our faith. In the case of baptism, God uses it to "cleanse" us by causing us to believe in the promise of forgiveness of sins. When? Not necessarily at the moment of baptism! In fact, baptism can be used by God to bring us to faith *even before we are baptized*, in this sense: an adult who believes (and is justified at that moment), believes in the promise that baptism offers. He is justified "by baptism" (i.e., by what baptism means) at that moment. Then, later, he receives baptism physically as a sign of the promise.
Or, a child is baptized at age 2. She then grows up and comes to believe the promise offered in baptism at age 20. She is therefore cleansed. "Baptism" -- the promise preached by baptism -- has saved her much later than her physical reception of the sign."
All of this is odd from our chronological way of thinking. But if we consider God's eternal purposes to elect and call and justify and glorify, the baptism and the faith form a perfective whole. The faith does the justifying; the baptism preaches the content of the faith; the two are united, but that union has nothing to do with time. In fact, the only people who are chronologically cleansed at the moment of their baptism are the ones who happen to believe right as the water hits their heads!
The Prize
I think understanding the union of baptism and faith as a perfective aspect rather than as a chronological claim can disentangle several arguments.
First, the fight over "baptismal efficacy" has typically swung between two poles: On the one hand, some insist that faith alone justifies. But others insist that the sign is united with the that which it signifies. This has left considerable disagreement about exactly when a baptized believer is cleansed of his sins.
The "perfective aspect" of the union between baptism and faith allows us to affirm the former: faith alone justifies. At the same time, it allows us to affirm that for the vast majority of believers, the sign *does* have a union with what it signifies, in this sense: the baptism cleanses at the moment of faith.
A second argument can also be disentangled here. What is baptismal efficacy? Faith. Baptism preaches the cleansing of Christ to us; we receive it by faith; the baptism is thereby efficacious, regardless of when it has been applied.
JRC
1. I am indebted to Dave Durant for reminding me of this idea.
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But now we must reckon with the fact that Derksen supplies an impressive array of quotations from various Westminster Divines and other Reformed theologians that plausibly show that these divines thought of baptism as a "confirming, not converting ordinance." This part will therefore directly challenge the arguments of BWS.
(1) Derksen's over-relies on the Westminster Divines as the primary window for understanding the Confession.
Citing the Westminster Divines Rutherford, Gillespie, Ussher, and others, together with the Reformed theologians Cunningham, Manton, and Turretin, Derksen claims that these representatives of Reformed thinking taught his two theses:
In this installment we will begin to show that the Westminster Standards’ teaching on baptism is in full accord with the historical Reformed understanding of the sacraments, as was outlined in Part 1. That is, baptism does not intrinsically confer spiritual grace, but rather spiritually benefits only the elect. Or, as it has frequently been stated in historical Reformed language: the sacraments are confirming and strengthening ordinances, and not converting ordinances -- BWS Part 3.
The problem is that the language of the Confession is drawn heavily from the writings of Calvin and from previous Reformed Confessions. Derksen in particular omits any discussion of Calvin in reference to his second thesis. The result is that he ends up pitting statements from Rutherford and Cunningham -- unwittingly -- against the dispositive statements of Calvin that we have already seen.
(2) Derksen improperly conflates his two theses; as a result, he illegitimately takes evidence for the one as if it proved the other.
Take a second look at Derksen's quote above, which explicates his two theses. With the word "Or", he signals his anti-ex opere operato thesis is to be considered as logically equivalent to the claim that baptism is confirming and not converting. And in fact this is precisely how he reads his sources. Statements against ex opere operato are taken as evidence that baptism does not confer, but only confirms salvation.
We note that Derksen's sources are addressing the question of ex opere operato. Their opposing formula of "confirming, not converting" is specifically directed against the view that the act of baptism creates grace or faith of itself. Their opposition is certainly not directed against Calvin's view that in baptism, we are ingrafted into Christ.
For example, Derksen cites: Our divines do not say that the sacraments are exhibitive ordinances, wherein grace is communicated to those who have none of it, to unconverted or unbelieving persons. (Gillespie, Aaron's Rod Blossoming p. 233, cited in BWS part 4)
As an anti-ex-operato statement, this is clear. Baptism does not, via its action, give grace to the unconverted.
But as a denial that baptism exhibits and conveys justification, it is much less clear. Gillespie is certainly not saying that the divines reject the idea that sacraments exhibit and convey grace, since they most certainly believed this! (WCoF 27). Nor could he be denying that sacraments are effectual means of salvation, since the divines affirmed this also (WLC 161).
So some of Derksen's citations are being applied to an issue different from their original context. This criticism applies also to his citations of Gouge, Gataker, Reynolds, Willet, and Turretin. All of these gentlemen affirm that baptism is ineffectual without faith; none of them affirm that the effect of baptism is something other than salvation, or deny that baptism effects our washing of sins.
(Incidentally, many of his citations are taken from treatises on the Lord's Supper, which makes them less obviously relevant to baptism.)
(3) Derksen's reliance on Rutherford creates some difficulties.
Despite the forgoing criticisms, some of Derksen's quotes do substantially show that some Reformed theologians of the Westminster era held to the "confirming, not converting" formula for the sacraments.
Rutherford is his best example:
Baptism is not whereby we are entered into Christ’s mystical and invisible body as such, for it be presupposed we be members of Christ’s body, and our sins pardoned already, before baptism come to be a seal of sins pardoned; but baptism is a seal of our entry into Christ’s visible body, as swearing to the Colors is that which entereth a soldier to be a member of that army, whereas before his oath, he was only a heart-friend to the army and cause.”)
...We teach not that baptism constituteth the Church simply, as the Church, but that it is a seal of a visible membership. -- S. Rutherford, Due Right of Presbyteries, pp. 211, 218, cited in BWS, part 4
But what difficulties has Rutherford involved himself in! For he flatly contradicts Calvin and the 2HC here, that baptism ingrafts us into Christ.
As Rutherford develops his theology, he is forced to say,
Christ by his Seals [sacraments] rightly and in faith used, do not only confirm grace and pardon, but also really exhibit and give grace and pardon in a further degree, and a new measure of assurance to the conscience which there was not before...” -- ibid, 217.
Since Rutherford denies that pardon is the effect of baptism, there is nothing left for baptism to effect except assurance and "pardon in a further degree."
Dear reader, stop and contemplate what the phrase "pardon in a further degree" might mean. Is not our justification "done and done", once-for-all, at the moment of faith?
No doubt Rutherford believes this also, but it is difficult to understand his position on the sacraments as a proper window into the understanding of the Confession.
(4) "Converting" and "confirming" are not strict opposites.
The issue in the ex opere operato debate was whether (as some Anglicans had it) the act of baptism creates faith. Thus, baptism was claimed to be a "converting" ordinance.
The Westminsterian divines clearly rejected this position.
But the opposite of "converting" is not "confirming." There might be other options besides either of these.
And in fact, I have argued here that baptism is "initiating." It is not "converting", except in the very narrow sense of Calvin's "secondary instrument." The action of baptism does not create faith (though its sealing of the spoken promise of the gospel might). But nor is it "confirming", increasing a faith that already exists.
No, the purpose of baptism is "initiatory." It unites us to Christ when (and not after) we believe. This is not merely Calvin's position, but it is expressed in the Reformed Confessions also, as we saw earlier.
"Converting" and "confirming" are false opposites, an unfortunate pairing born out of the ex-opere-operato conflict and pressed into a different service here.
(5) The baptism of infants argues against the view that baptism presupposes faith.
If baptism presupposes faith, then how can we baptize infants? Derksen is aware of this challenge, and he addresses it in BWS part 5. His argument in favor of infant baptism pursues the traditional lines of Reformed reasoning (which I affirm together with him). However, he does not answer the question, except to speculate that covenant children might have seed faith -- or they might not.
This is unsatisfactory. For if baptism of adults presupposes faith, then either baptism of children must be a different rite entirely from baptism of adults, or else the seed faith view must be correct. The first notion, that baptism of children has a different meaning than that of adults, has been tried in Reformed circles and rejected. The second view, that all children of believers contain seed-faith within them, is hotly contested.
But most telling is that Calvin denied that baptism of infants presupposed their faith. Contra Cunningham, he says,
Master. - If these things are requisite to the legitimate use of Baptism, how comes it that we baptize Infants?
Scholar. - It is not necessary that faith and repentance should always precede baptism. They are only required from those whose age makes them capable of both. It will be sufficient, then, if, after infants have grown up, they exhibit the power of their baptism. -- Geneva Catechism.
Far better to acknowledge that baptism means but one thing to all recipients: it is the objective seal of the truth of the Gospel, and the reception of the Gospel is the moment at which baptism takes its effect.
(5) Baptism is outwardly a symbol of initiation; its inward grace should correspond.
Baptism is outwardly a sign of solemn admission into the visible church. As an outward sign, it symbolizes initiation. Why then should we deny (as Rutherford does) that the inward reality is also initiation?
(6) Rebaptism is universally rejected
If baptism were a confirming ordinance, rebaptism would be perfectly legitimate. Just as communion confirms Christ's death for us, yet without re-sacrifice, so also a confirming baptism would confirm our justification -- and that sign could be continued indefinitely.
Instead, it is but once applied because it symbolizes (and therefore sacramentally effects) our once-for-all justification.
(7) Derksen (and those he cites) completely overlook the stated Confessional meaning of the sign.
The Shorter Catechism says this:
Q. 94. What is baptism?
A. Baptism is a sacrament, wherein the washing with water in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, doth signify and seal our ingrafting into Christ, and partaking of the benefits of the covenant of grace, and our engagement to be the Lord’s
What is signed is the ingrafting into Christ, the initiation into our relationship with Him. Likewise the Larger Catechism:
Question 165: What is Baptism?
Answer: Baptism is a sacrament of the New Testament, wherein Christ has ordained the washing with water in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost, to be a sign and seal of ingrafting into himself, of remission of sins by his blood, and regeneration by his Spirit; of adoption, and resurrection unto everlasting life; and whereby the parties baptized are solemnly admitted into the visible church, and enter into an open and professed engagement to be wholly and only the Lord's.
The things signed are the things conveyed! Derksen, by contrast, has the things signed not conveyed, but merely confirmed. I humbly submit that the language of "confirmation" is not how the Standards describe the efficacy of the sacraments.
Increasing of faith? Yes. Signing, sealing, and applying the benefits of Christ? Yes. But "confirming the thing signified?" No.
To summarize: Derksen's arguments carry some weight, given his copious research into the views of the Westminster Divines. But his sources are concentrated too heavily in the Divines, not heavily enough in the early Reformers (especially Calvin), and they create odd difficulties on the very point he wants to establish. In short, Derksen has over-emphasized the views individual theologians to provide an idiosyncratic read of the Confessions.
In particular, Derksen's adoption of the "confirming, not converting" formula creates a false opposition. Baptism is neither; it is a kingly seal that testifies to God's promise, and it is an initiatory sacrament.
By contrast, the Westminster Confession presents a clear testimony, consistent with Calvin, Ursinus, 2HC, and the Gallic Confession that baptism effects what it signifies: namely, the washing away of sins and our union with Christ, at the moment of faith.
Charles Hodge deserves the last word:
How then is it true that baptism washes away sin, unites us to Christ, and secures salvation? The answer again is, that this is true of baptism in the same sense that it is true of the word. God is pleased to connect the benefits of redemption with the believing reception of the truth. And he is pleased to connect these same benefits with the believing reception of baptism. That is, as the Spirit works with and by the truth, so he works with and by baptism, in communicating the blessings of the covenant of grace. Therefore, as we are said to be saved by the word, with equal propriety we are said to be saved by baptism; though baptism without faith is as of little effect as is the word of God to unbelievers. -- C. Hodge, Comm. Eph. 5.17-33.
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